the issue is defining the requirements to have the dollars, if it is a requirement that EVERY dollar be earned through some type of 'work'(salary or wage), than why is it not the same for wealthy who have plenty of money that is non salary or wage
The author of the opinion piece is using that as a kind of diversion.
To justify a comparison of apples and oranges.
The government has an IRS. With police powers. You don't pay your taxes, they can SWAT team you and imprison you against your will.
They take that tax money (ultimately gained by force or the threat of force) and give it to poor people (although they don't really give it to poor people. First they funnel it through their administrative system, taking a cut, then they create a system that offers benefits, taking more of a cut of the stolen money by hiring people to run that system, to pay favored businesses a cut like those that process food stamps, or make the EBT cards, or print the food stamps).
They define who is "poor." They define what those "poor" people can do with that "money."
"Rich" people don't have an IRS. They don't kick down the doors of some random home owner and say "Okay, this house is ours now, we want 1/3 of your monthly income in rent, time to pay your fair share!"
People willingly enter into rental agreements, and pay rent for use of a property they want.
Capital gains are only realized by selling a stock to someone who is willing to pay for that stock.
You can have a billion shares of apple and be worth billions and billions of dollars, but still dead broke, unless you can find someone that will freely buy those shares for what you ask for them.
Dividends are only achieved by a company willingly and freely choosing to pay a dividend, and they have the freedom to stop paying it at any time.
Bonds/savings account interest is paid by people freely entering into that relationship in order to use that money somewhere else.
Tax "breaks" (or what the author calls "subsidies") are not "we the government are going to give you money," so much as "under these conditions we don't have the legal authority to IRS SWAT team down your doors and take it from you for not giving us the money we say you owe."
Implied in "the issue is defining the requirements to have the dollars, if it is a requirement that EVERY dollar be earned through some type of 'work'" is the idea that government owns the dollar as well as the value or meaning it is perceived to represent.
It does not.
Dollars don't define anything. They are a convenient means to exchange value and effort as defined by the people freely exchanging them.
The government can only force another person to accept the definition, meaning, or value of the dollar if they are dependent upon the dollar and the government defining the dollar for them in terms of enforcing what the people are able to do with it, either within markets it has absolute control over, or by piggybacking onto others that are freely accepted.
People using dollars as a convenient exchange for freely entered transactions of goods and services (stocks and rent) can find some other means of exchange.
Chickens, gold, cryptocurrencies, barrels of oil, handjobs, big macs, art, room & board, maintenance, farts in a bag, whatever.
They (those in freely chosen exchange) will never be slavishly dependent on the government to define what their goods and services are worth and what can be done with them ("poor" people do this too for certain things. Read about Tide laundry detergent becoming drug currency).
So this:
the issue is defining the requirements to have the dollars, if it is a requirement that EVERY dollar be earned through some type of 'work'(salary or wage), than why is it not the same for wealthy who have plenty of money that is non salary or wage
isn't really an issue at all. It's equating things which aren't, in a facile argument.
It's dealing with completely separate issues, beliefs, systems, perceptions, and in no way realistically possible.